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Old 08-11-2006, 07:00 PM   #1
Alex
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Medical Question

I was just reading a book regarding nuerolgical diseases and i began to wonder.

If Tourette's Syndrome is caused by a surplus of dopamine in the brain and Parkinson's is caused by a deficit of dopamine, then what would happen to a Tourette's syndrome patient who got Parkinson's.

Would he even out.

EDIT: Yes i know 95% of gfy has no idea what im talking about, but some people here are actually smart.
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:06 PM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Alex
but some people here are actually smart.
ORLY?????
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:13 PM   #3
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possibly mutually exclusive. You can't have an excess and a deficit at the same time

I'd say if someone had Tourette's and developed Parkinson's, then the Tourettte's symptoms would resolve as the Parkinson's took over. So perhaps there'd be a middle ground, before the Parkinson's became obvious the Tourette's would lessen.
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:14 PM   #4
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good question

most likely not.. as peeps with tourettes have other neurological issues going on so one doesnt cover the other
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:17 PM   #5
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what kind of a stupid question is that?
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:20 PM   #6
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I think that they FUCKSHIT BLOWME ASSHOLE CUNT would probably COCKSUCKER FUCK not notice a difference.
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:21 PM   #7
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It's like asking:
if X disorder is caused by high blood pressure and
if Y disorder is caused by low blood pressure
what would happen to a person who has both X and Y disorder?

Nothing would happen to him... he would have both X and Y disorder, and he would be fucked since neither X or Y could be treated without fucking up the other...
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:23 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by woj
It's like asking:
if X disorder is caused by high blood pressure and
if Y disorder is caused by low blood pressure
what would happen to a person who has both X and Y disorder?

Nothing would happen to him... he would have both X and Y disorder, and he would be fucked since neither X or Y could be treated without fucking up the other...
This is algebra or some shit isn't it?
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:27 PM   #9
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I think it depends on where in the brain the Dopamine imabalance is - you can have an imbalance in just one or more areas in the brain so as Parkinson's and Tourettes are related to different areas of the brain it could be possible to have both.

Of course I could be talking shit, but its an educated guess.
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:30 PM   #10
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What happens if you get tourette's but don't know any swear words yet?
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:31 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by woj
It's like asking:
if X disorder is caused by high blood pressure and
if Y disorder is caused by low blood pressure
what would happen to a person who has both X and Y disorder?

Nothing would happen to him... he would have both X and Y disorder, and he would be fucked since neither X or Y could be treated without fucking up the other...
Your premise is wrong.

The patient doesn't start with X and Y disorder they start with X and then go on to develop Y. The question is, when Y is present do they still have X? Quite possibly, but it's also very possible the symptoms would be reduced.
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Old 08-11-2006, 07:35 PM   #12
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http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=PubMed&list_uids=350423 4&dopt=Citation

"A patient with Gilles de la Tourette syndrome later developed Parkinson's disease in middle age. This was accompanied by a marked reduction in the frequency of tics but levodopa toxicity exacerbated the tics. The dopamine hypothesis of tic disorders is supported by this observation"
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Last edited by sacX; 08-11-2006 at 07:35 PM.. Reason: link fizucked
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