How is this possible? (Math Problem)
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a=0
simple misdirection when you tried to cancel out the variable aTelegram PhoenixBrad
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On line 4 when you divide by (a-b), you're dividing by zero since a=b. Division by zero is undefined.
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fuck i've gt a sore head just lookin at that!
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i think he's right...Originally posted by High Plains DrifterOn line 4 when you divide by (a-b), you're dividing by zero since a=b. Division by zero is undefined.
row 4 is jacked upComment
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yeah those algebraic rules they are following are not correct
on a more defined note if i have 5 apples and take away 4 apples i still have 5 apples
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yeh divide by zero. lol at used condom commentComment
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(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)Originally posted by smashfaceWhat soulbleed means is that to get to the final answer shown, you would have to divide both sides by a which is supposed to be assigned the value 0.
How in hell did they come there? This is not equal at all!
(a+b) != b
So, even before making the division by 0, the equation is fucked up.Comment
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you can factor a-b out if you state it is not equal to zero
the issue for me is where they divide a out of the question
they should have brought it over and then factored it out to show that a=0Telegram PhoenixBrad
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The more formal definition of this invalid proof (ie. the one that isn't a sloppy photoshopped graphic) has the values 'a' and 'b' defined as non-zero qualities. Besides the division by zero, the proof is sound.
Code:[B][SIZE="4"]Proof that 2 equals 1[/SIZE][/B] Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities a = b Multiply through by a a² = ab Subtract b² a² minus b² = ab minus b² Factor both sides (a - b)(a + b) = b(a minus b) Divide out (a minus b) a + b = b Observing that a = b b + b = b Combine like terms on the left 2b = b Divide by the non-zero b 2 = 1 The fallacy is in line 5: the progression from line 4 to line 5 involves division by (a minus b), which is zero since a equals b. Since division by zero is undefined, the argument is invalid.
Last edited by High Plains Drifter; 04-12-2006, 08:13 PM.
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No it's not. You can't avoid the divison by ZERO. If a=b and from 4 to line 5you are dividing out (a-b) you are ALWAYS going to get ZERO no matter what non-zero numbner you use for a and b in the beginning.Originally posted by High Plains DrifterThe more formal definition of this invalid proof (ie. the one that isn't a sloppy photoshopped graphic) has the values 'a' and 'b' defined as non-zero qualities. Besides the division by zero, the proof is sound.Comment
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Didn't someone prove that 1+1=3???PornGuy skype me pornguy_epic
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Non-linearity is a bitch.

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Originally posted by High Plains DrifterOn line 4 when you divide by (a-b), you're dividing by zero since a=b. Division by zero is undefined.
yea, i agree
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