After Shock Media |
06-07-2005 07:40 PM |
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pleasurepays
this was what i was addressing. i was just making the point that i dont think you are right. penetration in and of itself does not define something as "sexually explicit".
now i finally got annoyed and tried to find the definitions.
unless i am mistaken -the same language for CP and 2257 defining sexually explicit conduct are the same (with the exception that CP has expanded definitions) and defined in TITLE 18 PART I CHAPTER 110 § 2256.
"For the purposes of this chapter, the term?
(2) ?sexually explicit conduct? means actual or simulated?
(A) sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex;
(B) bestiality;
(C) masturbation;
(D) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or
(E) lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of any person;"
so to address the point you made that you could show a penis next to the mouth - i would say that would be a bad idea. the above definations could be possibly even be read to mean that "simulated lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area..." would be "sexually explicit"
lascivious \luh-SIV-ee-uhs\, adjective:
1. Lewd; lustful.
2. Tending to arouse sexual desires.
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Current reg:
(1) the term ?actual sexually explicit conduct? means actual but not simulated conduct as defined in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (2) of section 2256 of this title;
Please note simulated was exempted and so was (e).
My eyes are going out reading so someone else can pull up the revised text of this clause.
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