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not at all your 6 numbers are 6 times 1 out of 42 you have a lucky number , there are many many more possiblities here there are two , on this once case the 66% will win or the 33% will win even thoug that the statistics will always say 66% will win , in one case they are equal |
i think youre just not understanding the theories behind the mathematics
if i was going to argue with a heart surgeon about how to operate on a patient i would be arguing out of total ignorance even if i had some kind of opinion i dont know what the fuck im talking about |
Should I run 100,000,000 iterations of the same program to prove the point?
Why are people so stubborn? Probability theory is not that hard, really. Especially not when it's been proven, black on white, how the outcome will be - the probabilities are set. You can toss a coin 10 times, and the probability distribution may just be 30% heads, 70% tails. But with a significant number of tries, you will get closer and closer to the 50/50 distribution for the experiment. |
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thing is...it doesn't take a brain surgeon to see that one LOL when we proved it with countless graphs and examples.... |
And "luck" certainly ain't no variable in probability theory. At least not the last time I checked. :1orglaugh
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if you play this game once you have absolutely no reason to change, the statistics never help you when playing once
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thats like saying theres a 5% chance for it to snow today and a 95% chance it wont however it will either snow or it wont so 50% 50% sure it might snow but the chance of it snowing is 5% thats the math thats the point |
Let me explain it to you:
If the host says "STC is the Greatest" you have 2 choices. If you choes to say 'Yes' you will have 100% chance of dying of natural causes while choosing 'No' leaves you with the obvious alternative. Not responding is stupid like imaginary numbers. |
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that is taking it to the extreme, if you play once statistics never help and I can prove that with stats :winkwink: |
2 fiddy
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thats what statistics are for percentage you guess wrong = 33% even if you got lucky and got it right, beat the odds, and subsequently defeated cancer and found jimmy hoffa you still only had a 33% chance of it happening |
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so if i'm throwing a dice....
I have 1/6 of getting 6 but you're telling me it's down to this: 50% of getting 6 50% of not getting 6 ??? let me buy a shit load of lottery tickets LOL yt, I will hook up with you in vegas! let's bet on a single number at the roulette! we have 50/50 chances! :Graucho |
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You can fucking try to argue all you want. His logic does not allow him to believe what you're saying. However, the statistical probability suggests that Fake Nick is a dumbass who does not want to believe the numbers. Probabilities are set, and do not change, no matter how often you play the game. Whether once, or 10,000 times. jesus...:1orglaugh |
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you're making too much sense for this thread :( whatever you flip a coin 1 time or 1000 times...the odds are always 50/50 in the Monty case..they are always of 66/33 :warning |
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you have 50 % chance that your 33% wins when there are two options claiming that you should change based on the 66% chance of winning is claiming that your 66% is equal to 100% and yet again that is based on one try |
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you have a 33% chance of your 33% chance hitting thats why it is a 33% chance the number of elements (two boxes) does not alter the ultimate probability of the entire equation |
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you should try thinking outside of the box if you put your theory down to one case and one case only you can only conclude that changing or not changing does not matter |
saying that you SHOULD change would be equal to claiming your 66% chance = 100%
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flipping a coin... of course it's .5 for either side, because you do have two sides which equates to 1/2. In the dice case, P(1)=P(2)=1P(3)=P(4)=P(5)= P(6) = 1/6. I believe the empirical evidence that P(win|switch)= 2/3 - however let me try to work this out by myself. P(win at first try) = 1/3 P(miss at first try) = 2/3 - evenly distributed. You do not switch - P(win) remains at 1/3. If you missed with P(miss)=2/3, the prize is behind one of the remaining doors. If you miss and switch, your probability to win equates 1 - P(picked winner at first try) = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3. So if you don't switch, your P(win) equates P(win picked at first try) which is constant at 1/3. That sounds reasonable to me. :thumbsup |
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does your 66% chance win 100% of the times ? if so you cant lose if not you have 50% chance of the 66% winning |
It seems just way too convenient to believe that you will have a fiddy/fiddy chance to pick the right door. But the problem is...
the second pick is DEPENDENT on the first one And nobody has mentioned this yet. It is NOT an independent draw in the second round. If it were, then yes .5 chance for each door. But it ain't. Case closed. |
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youre not saying that its 100% for it to be there youre saying that based on math it should be there |
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100 times worded differently ive said that the empty box the host chooses is the basis for the entire equation people are just forgetting it ever existed when in reality it is the key to the whole puzzle |
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Sorry folks, didn't mean to take your credit. I didn't read the whole thread. :thumbsup
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ok either way I dont have time to discuss this further an icq buddy of mine who I explained this thread to and showed link just showed me this http://www.derrenbrown.co.uk/roulette_press.asp have to read this first :Graucho |
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im just saying that there is 100% chance that some people will never understand this no matter how many times we spell it out that is probability for you |
The two events of picking the doors are not mutually exclusive.
Sigh, I am done with this topic really. Good night! |
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LOL getting kinda frustrating isn't it?? I had difficulties to believe it at first but fuck..I did what you just did a couple of post above...can't go wrong LOL.... |
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dunno whether the chance is 100%, because then all the participating members reading this thread would not agree to our assumptions. But I bet the margin's quite high! :thumbsup |
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the fact is you dont understand the difference between one time and 100 times |
you claim the outcome for 100 will always be equal to the outcome for 1
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probability doesnt change based on the frequency of the event |
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