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Originally Posted by Caligari
yes, it would mean "most americans" who had an opinion in the poll.
once again there are 30% with no opinion which does not count so you have 43%>27%
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This poll was conducted among a random sample of 1,650 adults nationwide, interviewed by telephone October 19-24, 2011. Phone numbers were dialed from random digit dial samples of both standard land-line and cell phones. The error due to sampling for results based on the entire sample could be plus or minus three percentage points. The error for subgroups is higher. An oversample was conducted for this survey which will be analyzed in a future poll release.
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Did not know 1,650 adults represented the majority of Americans. But hey, when you desperately want your idiotic agenda to work, you've got to rationalize.