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Old 04-12-2006, 09:24 PM  
GatorB
The Demon & 12clicks
 
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Join Date: Oct 2001
Location: SallyRand is a FAGGOT
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Quote:
Originally Posted by High Plains Drifter
The more formal definition of this invalid proof (ie. the one that isn't a sloppy photoshopped graphic) has the values 'a' and 'b' defined as non-zero qualities. Besides the division by zero, the proof is sound.
No it's not. You can't avoid the divison by ZERO. If a=b and from 4 to line 5you are dividing out (a-b) you are ALWAYS going to get ZERO no matter what non-zero numbner you use for a and b in the beginning.
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