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Originally Posted by lloyd
i always wonderered why dont do this with punitive damages in court cases. like if you get $100,000 for suffering and $10,000,000 for punitive cos your coffee is too hot, seems entirely reasonable that the government get the money and not you. isnt the purpose of punitive to punish the company, not award the victim?
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They are sort of working on that now with some types of lawsuit cases, though not hot coffee ones.