Originally Posted by Pleasurepays

this was what i was addressing. i was just making the point that i dont think you are right. penetration in and of itself does not define something as "sexually explicit".

now i finally got annoyed and tried to find the definitions.

unless i am mistaken -the same language for CP and 2257 defining sexually explicit conduct are the same (with the exception that CP has expanded definitions) and defined in TITLE 18 PART I CHAPTER 110 § 2256.

"For the purposes of this chapter, the term?

(2) ?sexually explicit conduct? means actual or simulated?
(A) sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex;
(B) bestiality;
(C) masturbation;
(D) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or
(E) lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of any person;"

so to address the point you made that you could show a penis next to the mouth - i would say that would be a bad idea. the above definations could be possibly even be read to mean that "simulated lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area..." would be "sexually explicit"

lascivious \luh-SIV-ee-uhs\, adjective:
1. Lewd; lustful.
2. Tending to arouse sexual desires.