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Originally Posted by candyflip
My uncle is getting divorced right now. He had his house prior to getting married.
According to him, she has no claim on the house.
I'd only take that as the truth coming from a lawyer...which he is not. BUT...he has been though this once before and is in the process again, so he might be correct.
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I think this is correct, but I believe there may be exceptions in certain states.
Whats the statistic now? Something like 50% of marriages in the US end in divorce. Would you drive a car without insurance if you knew that there was a 50% chance that you'd get in an accident that would get you sued and you'd lose half of your assets? Fuck no!
