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mkx · 11-29-2004, 10:41 PM

Let's say you make a deal with an overseas company be an exclusive distributor of their product in north America. You register the .com domain for the company name where they have the .'theircountry' domain for the manufacture website (which was registered 1st)

They someone screw you out of some money which can be argued both ways so it is not fraud, just bad business, and they cease your distributorship for reasons not outline in their policy that you have never read nor signed.

You then use the domain name (which gets a substantial amount of type-ins) and make a page saying 'this company owes us $XXXXX dollars'' blah blah and also have a section for customer complaints about the product or company.

Would this backfire on you since you really did have the right to register and use the domain name at that the time registered?

11-29-2004, 10:41 PM
mkx Confirmed User Industry Role: Join Date: Nov 2003 Location: Toronto Posts: 4,001	domain cybersquating question Let's say you make a deal with an overseas company be an exclusive distributor of their product in north America. You register the .com domain for the company name where they have the .'theircountry' domain for the manufacture website (which was registered 1st) They someone screw you out of some money which can be argued both ways so it is not fraud, just bad business, and they cease your distributorship for reasons not outline in their policy that you have never read nor signed. You then use the domain name (which gets a substantial amount of type-ins) and make a page saying 'this company owes us $XXXXX dollars'' blah blah and also have a section for customer complaints about the product or company. Would this backfire on you since you really did have the right to register and use the domain name at that the time registered?