Quote:
Originally posted by warlock5
"A state appeals court ruled that a verbal agreement between a woman and her sperm donor was invalid, and ordered the man to pay child support for the woman's twins."
Are verbal agreements ever legally valid? I think you guys are taking this out of context.
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They article also stated that it was a legally biding contract...so something to that extent, I don't know the extact phrasing they used. Basically the judge set aside the law for the good of one child. This might sound shitty to some, but I don't think that's right...do you?