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The way I see it, and I'm no attorney so i could be wrong... Bot suppose company "A" supplies videofeeds for websites, and company "A" pays acacia thier fees... ok now since the fee on that video has been paid, why would company "B" who leases the fee also have to pay? Its already been paid by company "A"!
And why would the webmaster thats sending traffic to company "B" thru links also have to pay?
Sounds like bullshit to me. They wont see a dime out of me, i do not provide video, and I damn sure wont pay them cause the sites that I link to provide video.
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