Quote:
Originally Posted by porno jew
as usual you are wrong and have created a delusional wordview out of god knows what.
first documented pirates = http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sea_Peoples
"In his Second Year, an attack of the Sherden, or Shardana, on the Nile Delta was repulsed and defeated by Ramesses, who captured some of the pirates. The event is recorded on Tanis Stele II.[17] An inscription by Ramesses II on the stela from Tanis which recorded the Sherden raider's raid and subsequent capture speaks of the continuous threat they posed to Egypt's Mediterranean coasts:
"the unruly Sherden whom no one had ever known how to combat, they came boldly sailing in their warships from the midst of the sea, none being able to withstand them."
sounds like "salvage" to me. 
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so a modern day author referes to "the foreign-countries (or 'peoples'[2]) of the sea" as pirates because it that what the modern day meaning is
at you attribute it to the creation of the word, even though it actually the reverse.
read the referenced book to see the context of the term pirates.
and where does it say that the term pirate was used to reference these people