GoFuckYourself.com - Adult Webmaster Forum - View Single Post - Female Ejaculations! Have you ever fucked a girl that could do it?

TheFLY · 05-18-2003, 08:14 PM

Ok it's not a simple answer...

1880, Alexander Skene, professor of gynecology in Brooklyn, New York, wrote a paper describing and diagramming various glands and ducts surrounding the female urethra. Modern science then began to refer to them as Skene's glands, a term that is still in use today.

1950s, Samuel Berkow, a urologist, discovers Skene's glands are made of erectile tissue that can be stimulated. At around this time Ernst Gräfenberg, originator of the "G" spot (which we'll cover later), wrote of observing the expulsion of fluid from the urethra during sexual arousal:

If there is the opportunity to observe the orgasm of such women, one can see that large quantities of a clear, transparent fluid (that) are expelled not from the vulva, but out of the urethra in gushes. At first, I thought that the bladder sphincter has become defective by the intensity of the orgasm. Involuntary expulsion of urine is reported in sex literature. In the cases observed by us, the fluid was examined and it had no urinary character. I am inclined to believe that 'urine' reported to be expelled during female orgasm is not urine, but only secretions of the intraurethral glands correlated with the erotogenic zone along the urethra in the anterior vaginal wall. Moreover, the profuse secretions coming out with the orgasm have no lubricating significance [so much for Galen's theory], otherwise they would be produced at the beginning of intercourse and not at the peak of orgasm.

1988, M. Zaviacic discovers that the Skene's glands are not, in fact, a vestigial homologue of the male prostate but, instead, a "small, functional organ that produces female prostatic secretion and possesses cells with neuroendocrine function, comparable to the male prostate." Everyone got that?

1995, E. A. Tanagho and company finds that an involuntary opening of the bladder sphincter can be triggered with stimulation of either the G Spot, the clitoris, or both simultaneously.

In summation, the fluid originates from the bladder, but is not urine, but rather an amalgamation of a denatured liquid containing only 25% urea and a female prostatic fluid the originates in the Skene's glands. So now you know HOW it happens, but as for WHY, well, it looks like that mystery will remain unsolved for now. And people think Fermat?s Last Theorem presented a challenge?

05-18-2003, 08:14 PM
TheFLY So Fucking Banned Join Date: Jan 2001 Location: http://www.thefly.net/ --- Quit your job and live off steady traffic. Posts: 11,856	Ok it's not a simple answer... 1880, Alexander Skene, professor of gynecology in Brooklyn, New York, wrote a paper describing and diagramming various glands and ducts surrounding the female urethra. Modern science then began to refer to them as Skene's glands, a term that is still in use today. 1950s, Samuel Berkow, a urologist, discovers Skene's glands are made of erectile tissue that can be stimulated. At around this time Ernst Gräfenberg, originator of the "G" spot (which we'll cover later), wrote of observing the expulsion of fluid from the urethra during sexual arousal: If there is the opportunity to observe the orgasm of such women, one can see that large quantities of a clear, transparent fluid (that) are expelled not from the vulva, but out of the urethra in gushes. At first, I thought that the bladder sphincter has become defective by the intensity of the orgasm. Involuntary expulsion of urine is reported in sex literature. In the cases observed by us, the fluid was examined and it had no urinary character. I am inclined to believe that 'urine' reported to be expelled during female orgasm is not urine, but only secretions of the intraurethral glands correlated with the erotogenic zone along the urethra in the anterior vaginal wall. Moreover, the profuse secretions coming out with the orgasm have no lubricating significance [so much for Galen's theory], otherwise they would be produced at the beginning of intercourse and not at the peak of orgasm. 1988, M. Zaviacic discovers that the Skene's glands are not, in fact, a vestigial homologue of the male prostate but, instead, a "small, functional organ that produces female prostatic secretion and possesses cells with neuroendocrine function, comparable to the male prostate." Everyone got that? 1995, E. A. Tanagho and company finds that an involuntary opening of the bladder sphincter can be triggered with stimulation of either the G Spot, the clitoris, or both simultaneously. In summation, the fluid originates from the bladder, but is not urine, but rather an amalgamation of a denatured liquid containing only 25% urea and a female prostatic fluid the originates in the Skene's glands. So now you know HOW it happens, but as for WHY, well, it looks like that mystery will remain unsolved for now. And people think Fermat?s Last Theorem presented a challenge?