Quote:
Originally Posted by quantum-x
It's really simple: When a coin is flipped, it is a 50% chance of being heads or tails.
Previous flips do not influence this chance.
Therefore, it WILL average out very close to 50/50 over a large sample set - that's why I said 'flip a coin 1,000,000 times'  |
The OP didn't ask for an average, he asked for a 50/50 split, which you can't guarantee with random. Just because you have a 50% chance of getting heads or tales does not mean you get 50% heads and 50% tales. If you made a machine to flip coins exactly the same every time (removing the random factor) you would always get the same result not 50/50.
Not to mention if he wanted to add a 3rd option, the "averages" are much worse.