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Old 03-15-2003, 02:27 AM  
XxXotic
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Join Date: Jun 2002
Location: Da Swamps
Posts: 8,500
Quote:
Originally posted by Voodoo


Case law tells us what the courts have decided in issues about "right vs. privilege". In the case of Chicago Motor Coach vs. Chicago, 169 NE 22; Ligare vs. Chicago, 28 NE 934; Boon vs. Clark, 214 SSW 607; and in 25 American Jurisprudence (1st) Highways Sect. 163, we find that, "The use of the highways for the purpose of travel and trans-portation is not a mere privilege, but a common and fundamental Right of which the public and the individual cannot be rightfully deprived." So here we have 3 court cases and a quote from one of our basic American law volumes telling us that we have an inalienable right to use the roadways.
and in no way do any of those precedents state that the roads are owned by citizens.

I have an inalienable right to vote, does that mean I own the voting machines?

Giving someone rights is not the same as giving them ownership of whatever it is they have been given the rights to
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