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Old 04-16-2007, 10:47 PM  
Webby
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Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Far far away - as possible
Posts: 14,956
Quote:
Originally Posted by AmateurFlix View Post
I'll use an example.

Population group A has 2% violent criminals.
Population group B has 15% violent criminals.

One city has 1000 citizens of group A (20 of whom are criminals) and 1000 of group B (150 of whom are criminals). If statistics hold true this city should have 170 violent criminals.

Another city has 1900 citizens of group A (38 criminals) and 100 of group B (1.5 - on average - criminals). Statistically this city should have ~40 criminals.

So the city with a lesser proportion of the group that has more criminal elements ends up with only 40 trouble makers rather than the 170 the other city has, yet both have an identical number of citizens overall.

All other factors aside, which one would you expect to have a lower crime rate?
Got ya! --- Sounds like back to the "social conditions"...

Just trying to find some actual stats - not easy!! Reasons are there are no totally reliable stats on international crime - simply because of regional/country variations. Eg.. some countries count multiple counts relating to one offense - as one offense - others don't. Interpol site is total crap on navigation and stats.

OK.. got these stats, but they still need to be taken as a guide only....

Murders with firearms in the US: 0.0279271 per 1,000 people
Ditto in Canada: 0.00502972 per 1,000 people

Looks like over fivefold increase..

This is supposedly "murders by firearms" only - not "firearms where injuries were caused" etc... or where firearms were used in commission of a crime etc.
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Last edited by Webby; 04-16-2007 at 10:49 PM..
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