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Originally Posted by Triple 6
The 16th amendment was 'supposedly' ratified in 1913 (the income tax act) so that 'income' can be defined as wages. This was not a legal ratififcation, and in 1916 the Supreme Court ruled in Brushaber that wages are NOT income within the meaning of the 16th Amendment.
Look it up...  |
Actually, it was legal according to the Supreme Court on every case that has been brought to it in regards to it. You can look them up:
Sisk v. Commissioner
Ficalora v. Commissioner
United States v. Sitka
United States v. Stahl
Brown v. Commissioner
Lysiak v. Commissioner
Miller v. United States
As for Brushaber, he lost his case and his case is used as an example of why an income tax is constitutional. You are completely, 100%, wrong. Read the case, read the constitution, don't get your information from some video on YouTube that some 19 year old put together.